Session 9 — Course Recap (Worked Exercises)

Session 9 — Course Recap (Worked Exercises)

Part of: Accounting Thirteen exam-style exercises spanning the whole course, each fully worked Key concepts: Accrual Accounting, Depreciation, SAFE, Stock Options, Equity Method, Business Combination, Goodwill, Revenue Recognition

How to use this note

The recap deck contains only the questions. Every solution below is worked from first principles and cross-referenced to the session where the concept is taught. Where the question leaves an input unstated, the assumption is flagged in a [!warning] callout — check it against the lecturer's intended figures. The deck's title slide reads "Session 11 — Recap"; this is the 9th note in the vault.


Part A — Accrual Accounting

Theory: Session 2 - Accounting Fundamentals. The recurring trick across these three is that ==an expense or income is recorded when the economic event happens, not when cash moves==.

Exercise 1 — Computer Depreciation & Disposal

A student buys a computer (expected 4-yr life) on Dec 31 2024 for $2,000. In Jul 2025 it breaks and is sold on Yad2 for $150. Show entries & balances at 1/1/2025, 30/6/2025, 31/12/2025.

Depreciation: straight-line = $2,000 ÷ 4 yrs = $500/yr = $41.67/month.

The journal

Each row is one posting. By convention the credited account is indented, and in every entry total debits = total credits.

Date Account Dr ($) Cr ($)
31 Dec 2024 Equipment 2,000
 Cash 2,000
Purchase computer, 4-yr useful life
30 Jun 2025 Depreciation Expense 250
 Accumulated Depreciation — Equipment 250
6 months' depreciation: $41.67 × 6
Jul 2025 Cash 150
Accumulated Depreciation — Equipment 250
Loss on Disposal 1,600
 Equipment 2,000
Sell computer; derecognise asset and its accumulated depreciation
How to read the disposal entry

To remove an asset you reverse what's on the books: credit Equipment for its full cost ($2,000) and debit Accumulated Depreciation for the $250 built up against it. Debit Cash for the $150 actually received. Whatever is left to balance the entry is the Loss on Disposal ($1,600) — the cost you never recovered.

Disposal arithmetic

Item Amount
Cost 2,000
Accumulated depreciation (6 months) (250)
Net book value (1,750)
Sale proceeds 150
Loss on disposal (1,600)

The balance sheet at year-end

A balance sheet is a snapshot at one date, so it's a single column. By 31 Dec 2025 the computer has been sold, so it has left the books entirely — the only thing left is the $150 of cash it fetched:

Assumption for a complete statement

The exercise gives a single asset with no company context, so to show a full Assets = Liabilities + Equity statement we assume the $2,000 computer was funded by $2,000 of owner's capital.

Balance Sheet as at 31 December 2025
$
Assets
 Cash 150
 Equipment (sold — derecognised) 0
Total assets 150
Liabilities 0
Equity
 Owner's capital 2,000
 Retained earnings (accumulated loss) (1,850)
Total equity 150
Assets = Liabilities + Equity 150 ✓

The $1,850 accumulated loss = $250 depreciation + $1,600 disposal loss — both are income-statement items, so they sit inside equity (retained earnings), never as their own balance-sheet lines.

The earlier dates (while the computer is still owned)

The question also asks for the position at 1 Jan and 30 Jun, before the sale. A non-current asset is shown at cost less accumulated depreciation (never a single net number), so a reader can see how worn-down it is:

While the computer is still owned
1 Jan 2025 30 Jun 2025
Equipment, at cost 2,000 2,000
Less: accumulated depreciation (0) (250)
Equipment, net book value 2,000 1,750
Cash 0 0
Total assets 2,000 1,750
Owner's capital 2,000 2,000
Retained earnings 0 (250)
Total equity 2,000 1,750

At every date Assets = Equity (there are no liabilities). Once the computer is sold, both the cost and accumulated-depreciation lines vanish and only the $150 cash remains.

The lesson

An early disposal crystallises the unrecovered cost as a one-off loss. The $1,850 total hit ($250 depreciation + $1,600 loss) equals cost $2,000 − proceeds $150. Depreciation only ever spreads cost; disposal trues it up to reality.


Exercise 2 — Accrued Utility Expense

Jan–Nov 2025 the company receives a $750 electricity bill by the 10th of the following month. For Dec 2025 it estimates $1,000 (cold winter). Entries & balances at 1/1/2025, 30/6/2025, 31/12/2025.

The bill arrives next month, but the electricity is consumed in the month itself → accrue the expense each month-end, then settle it when the bill is paid. December has no bill yet, so you accrue an estimate.

The journal — one representative cycle + year-end

Date Account Dr ($) Cr ($)
31 May 2025 Electricity Expense 750
 Accrued Expense Payable 750
Accrue May electricity — used but not yet billed
10 Jun 2025 Accrued Expense Payable 750
 Cash 750
Pay the May bill when it arrives next month
31 Dec 2025 Electricity Expense 1,000
 Accrued Expense Payable 1,000
Accrue estimated December bill (cold winter)
The two-step accrual cycle

Step 1 (month-end): record the expense and a matching liability — you've used the power but haven't paid. Step 2 (next month): when the bill is paid, debit the liability away and credit Cash. The payment records no expense — that was already booked in step 1. Recording expense again on payment would double-count.

How it lands on the financial statements

Balance sheet extract 1 Jan 2025 30 Jun 2025 31 Dec 2025
Current liabilities
 Accrued Expense Payable 750* 750 1,000

*The December-2024 bill carried into 1 Jan, paid ~10 Jan; thereafter one month's bill always sits unpaid.

Income statement YTD 30 Jun Full year
Electricity expense 4,500 (6 × 750) 9,250 (11 × 750 + 1,000)
Estimates are still accruals

December's bill hasn't arrived, but the expense belongs to 2025 because the electricity was used in 2025. You accrue your best estimate ($1,000); when the real bill lands in January you adjust any small difference. Waiting for the invoice would wrongly push the cost into 2026.


Exercise 3 — Accrued Interest Income

On Jan 1 2024 the company deposits $100M of IPO proceeds in a 3% interest-bearing account; interest is paid annually. Entries & balances at 1/1/2025, 30/6/2025, 31/12/2025.

Assumption

"Monthly 3% interest" is ambiguous; this solution reads it as 3% per annum, accruing through the year and paid each 1 January for the preceding year. If the lecturer meant 3% per month, scale the figures up accordingly.

Annual interest = $100M × 3% = $3M/yr (= $250k/month accruing). Figures below in $000s.

The journal

Date Account Dr ($000s) Cr ($000s)
Monthly, 2024 Interest Receivable 250
 Interest Income 250
Accrue one month's interest as it is earned
1 Jan 2025 Cash 3,000
 Interest Receivable 3,000
Collect the full 2024 interest in cash
30 Jun 2025 Interest Receivable 1,500
 Interest Income 1,500
Accrue Jan–Jun 2025 interest (6 × 250)
31 Dec 2025 Interest Receivable 1,500
 Interest Income 1,500
Accrue Jul–Dec 2025 interest; receivable now 3,000
The mirror image of an accrued expense

Accrued income is the flip of Exercise 2: you book the income as it's earned (debit the asset Interest Receivable) even though cash lands later. When cash finally arrives you debit Cash and credit the receivable away — no income is recorded on collection, because it was already recognised as it accrued.

How it lands on the balance sheet

Balance sheet extract ($000s) 1 Jan 2025 30 Jun 2025 31 Dec 2025
Current assets
 Cash +3,000 received — —
 Interest Receivable 0* 1,500 3,000
Interest income (P&L, YTD 2025) — 1,500 3,000

*The 2024 receivable is collected in cash on 1 Jan, netting to zero, then re-accrues through 2025.


Part B — Raising Debt & Capital

Theory: Session 3 - Raising Debt and Capital and Session 4 - Incorporation, Corporate Taxes & Employee Compensation.

Exercise 4 — Equity Raise, Bank Loan, 3 Years of Statements

  • 1 Jan 2023: raise $5M at $20M pre-money (→ $25M post-money; investor owns 20%).
  • 1 Jan 2024: $8M loan, repaid in 3 equal annual installments starting 1 Jan 2025, 12% interest paid each 1 Jan for the preceding year.
  • Tax 25%. Operating income ($000s): 2023 = 1,200 · 2024 = 2,000 · 2025 = 950.
  • Required: balance sheets, net income, and cash flows for 2023–2025.
Assumptions

Operating income is treated as cash; tax and interest are paid one year in arrears (so they sit as payables at year-end). All figures $000s.

The key journal entries

Operating income is shown as a single cash posting each year; the financing, interest and tax entries are the ones being tested.

Date Account Dr ($000s) Cr ($000s)
1 Jan 2023 Cash 5,000
 Share Capital 5,000
Equity raise — $5M at $20M pre-money (investor owns 20%)
31 Dec 2023 Tax Expense 300
 Tax Payable 300
Accrue 2023 tax (1,200 × 25%), paid next year
1 Jan 2024 Cash 8,000
 Loan Payable 8,000
Draw down the $8M bank loan
31 Dec 2024 Interest Expense 960
 Interest Payable 960
Accrue 2024 interest (8,000 × 12%), paid 1 Jan 2025
31 Dec 2024 Tax Expense 260
 Tax Payable 260
Accrue 2024 tax (1,040 × 25%)
1 Jan 2025 Interest Payable 960
Tax Payable 260
Loan Payable 2,667
 Cash 3,887
Pay 2024 interest + 2024 tax + first principal installment (8,000 ÷ 3)
31 Dec 2025 Interest Expense 640
 Interest Payable 640
Accrue 2025 interest on the reduced 5,333 balance × 12%
31 Dec 2025 Tax Expense 77.5
 Tax Payable 77.5
Accrue 2025 tax (310 × 25%)
Why interest falls in 2025

The loan is a reducing-balance repayment: the first $2,667 installment is paid on 1 Jan 2025, so interest for 2025 is charged on the remaining $5,333, not the original $8,000. Each year the interest charge shrinks as the principal is paid down.

Net income

($000s) 2023 2024 2025
Operating income 1,200 2,000 950
Interest expense 0 (960)¹ (640)²
Pre-tax income 1,200 1,040 310
Tax @ 25% (300) (260) (77.5)
Net income 900 780 232.5

¹ 2024 interest = $8,000 × 12% = 960 (full year on the loan). ² 2025: first installment of $8,000 ÷ 3 = 2,667 is repaid 1 Jan 2025, leaving 5,333 outstanding → interest = 5,333 × 12% = 640.

Balance sheets (year-end)

($000s) 2023 2024 2025
Cash 6,200 15,900 12,963
Total assets 6,200 15,900 12,963
Loan payable 0 8,000 5,333
Interest payable 0 960 640
Tax payable 300 260 77.5
Total liabilities 300 9,220 6,050.5
Share capital 5,000 5,000 5,000
Retained earnings 900 1,680 1,912.5
Total equity 5,900 6,680 6,912.5
Liab. + equity 6,200 15,900 12,963

✓ Each year Assets = Liabilities + Equity.

Cash flows

($000s) 2023 2024 2025
Operating income (cash) 1,200 2,000 950
− Tax paid (prior year) 0 (300) (260)
− Interest paid (prior year) 0 0 (960)
CF from operations 1,200 1,700 (270)
Equity raised 5,000 0 0
Loan drawn 0 8,000 0
Loan principal repaid 0 0 (2,667)
CF from financing 5,000 8,000 (2,667)
Net change in cash 6,200 9,700 (2,937)
Closing cash 6,200 15,900 12,963
Why 2025 cash falls despite a profit

2025 makes a $232.5k profit, yet cash drops $2.94M. The killers are the $2,667 principal repayment (a financing outflow that never touches the income statement) plus paying last year's $960 interest and $260 tax. ==Profit ≠ cash== — the gap is timing and balance-sheet movements, the core lesson of Session 5 - Financial Statements Analysis.


Exercise 5 — Statement of Shareholders' Equity (SAFE + Priced Round)

  • 1 Jan 2025: Founders contribute $100,000 → 100,000 common shares, $0.01 par.
  • 1 Feb 2025: SAFE with Investor A for $500,000 (30% discount or $5M cap).
  • Nov 2025: Investor B round of $3,000,000 for Preferred A at $8M pre-money.
  • Required: Statement of Shareholders' Equity at 31 Dec 2025.

(This is the equity half of Assignment 1 — same numbers.)

SAFE conversion (triggered by Investor B's round): compare the two terms and give Investor A the lower price (more shares):

Method Price per share Result
30% discount on round $8M ÷ 100,000 = $80 → ×70% = $56.00 worse for A
$5M cap $5,000,000 ÷ 100,000 founder shares = $50.00 cap wins ✓

→ Investor A receives $500,000 ÷ $50 = 10,000 Preferred A shares.

Investor B price: the round is priced on the shares outstanding before the SAFE converts (the founders' 100,000) = $8,000,000 ÷ 100,000 = $80.00/share → $3,000,000 ÷ $80 = 37,500 Preferred A shares.

Why the price uses the pre-SAFE share count

The new round is priced on the shares outstanding before the SAFE converts (100,000), giving $80/share. The SAFE's 10,000 shares then convert alongside and dilute everyone, so Investor B's final stake works out to 25.42% — just below the $3M ÷ $11M ≈ 27% you might expect, because the converting SAFE dilutes the new investor too.

The journal

Date Account Dr ($) Cr ($)
1 Jan 2025 Cash 100,000
 Common Stock (par: 100,000 × $0.01) 1,000
 APIC — Common 99,000
Founders' contribution — par vs premium split
1 Feb 2025 Cash 500,000
 SAFE Liability 500,000
Investor A's SAFE — a liability until it converts
Nov 2025 SAFE Liability 500,000
 Preferred Stock A — APIC 500,000
SAFE converts at the $5M cap → 10,000 Preferred A
Nov 2025 Cash 3,000,000
 Preferred Stock A — APIC 3,000,000
Investor B priced round → 37,500 Preferred A
A SAFE is a liability, then equity

When the cash comes in (1 Feb) the SAFE is a liability — you owe future shares but the round hasn't happened. At conversion you debit the liability away and credit equity; total assets don't move, the obligation simply turns into stock.

Statement of Shareholders' Equity — 31 Dec 2025
Component Shares Amount
Common Stock (par $0.01 × 100,000) 100,000 $1,000
APIC — Common — $99,000
Preferred A — SAFE conversion (Investor A) 10,000 $500,000
Preferred A — Investor B 37,500 $3,000,000
Total contributed capital 147,500 $3,600,000

(Retained earnings/deficit from the year's trading would be added below; this exercise covers only the capital events.)

Resulting ownership (cap table)
Shareholder Shares Interest
Founders — common 100,000 67.80%
Investor A — Preferred A (via SAFE) 10,000 6.78%
Investor B — Preferred A 37,500 25.42%
Total 147,500 100%
Exam trap — the cap beats the discount here

Students instinctively apply the discount. Always compute both and take whichever gives the investor the lower conversion price. The $5M cap ($50/sh) beats the 30% discount ($56/sh), so the cap governs.


Part C — Employees' Stock Options

Theory: Session 4 - Incorporation, Corporate Taxes & Employee Compensation (Black-Scholes, vesting).

Exercise 6 — Option Valuation & Sensitivities

31 May 2024: grant 10,000 options, 10-yr term, exercise price $10, vesting 4 yrs (1-yr cliff then 1/48 monthly). Risk-free 3.5%, volatility 60%, dividend yield 0%.

Sensitivities (how each input moves a call option's value)

Change Direction Why
Exercise price $10 → $15 ▼ Decreases Higher strike = you pay more to exercise = less valuable call
Vesting period 4 → 3 yrs ≈ No change to fair value Vesting affects expense timing, not the per-option Black-Scholes value (unless it shortens the expected term)
Term 10 → 4.5 yrs ▼ Decreases Less time for the stock to climb above strike (time value falls)
Volatility 60% → 80% ▲ Increases More upside dispersion; downside is capped at zero → options love volatility
One-line memory aid

A call gets more valuable with higher stock price, volatility, time, and rate; less valuable with higher strike and dividends. (Vesting just paces the expense.)

Grant-date value (Black-Scholes)

Assumptions

The market price at grant is unstated; assume at-the-money (S = K = $10). Expected term assumed 6.5 yrs (typical for a 10-yr option with a 4-yr vest). Both materially affect the number — confirm against the lecturer's figures.

d1=ln⁡(S/K)+(r+σ2/2)TσT=0+(0.035+0.18)(6.5)0.606.5≈0.91d_1 = \frac{\ln(S/K) + (r + \sigma^2/2)T}{\sigma\sqrt{T}} = \frac{0 + (0.035 + 0.18)(6.5)}{0.60\sqrt{6.5}} \approx 0.91
d2=d1−σT≈0.91−1.53=−0.62d_2 = d_1 - \sigma\sqrt{T} \approx 0.91 - 1.53 = -0.62
C=S N(d1)−Ke−rTN(d2)≈10(0.82)−10(0.797)(0.269)≈$6.05 per optionC = S\,N(d_1) - K e^{-rT} N(d_2) \approx 10(0.82) - 10(0.797)(0.269) \approx \boxed{\$6.05 \text{ per option}}

→ Total grant-date fair value ≈ 10,000 × $6.05 = ≈ $60,500, expensed straight-line over the 4-year vesting period (≈ $60,500 ÷ 48 = $1,260/month). Nothing is recorded on the grant date itself — it is only the measurement date (see Session 4 - Incorporation, Corporate Taxes & Employee Compensation and the fuller worked treatment in Assignment 2).

The journal — recognising the expense

No entry at grant. Thereafter, each period:

Date Account Dr Cr
Grant (31 May 2024) — no entry —
Each period over vesting Stock-Based Compensation Expense 1,260/mo
 APIC — Stock Options 1,260/mo
Recognise the option cost as the employee earns it
The credit is equity, not a liability

The offset goes to APIC — Stock Options (equity), because the company will settle by delivering shares, not cash. Equity-settled awards never create a payable.


Part D — Business Combinations

Theory: Session 7 - Business Combination. This is a step acquisition: Exercise 7 (25%, influence) → Exercise 8 (75%, control).

Exercise 7 — First Tranche: 25% Stake

1 Jan 2025: Harvest buys 500,000 shares of Beans LLC from an existing shareholder for $2M. Beans has 2,000,000 shares outstanding. Beans price: 31 Dec 2024 = $4; 31 Jan 2025 Beans declares a $2/share dividend. How is this reflected in Harvest's FS at 30 Jun 2025?

Ownership = 500,000 ÷ 2,000,000 = 25% → 20–50% band → ==Equity Method== (associate). Cost = $2M ($4.00/share, matching market).

The journal ($000s)

Date Account Dr Cr
1 Jan 2025 Investment in Beans 2,000
 Cash 2,000
Acquire 25% — record at cost
31 Jan 2025 Cash 1,000
 Investment in Beans 1,000
$2/sh dividend on 500,000 sh — under the equity method this is a return of capital, not income, so it reduces the investment
Investment carrying value at 30 Jun 2025
Amount
Cost $2.0M
Less dividend received $(1.0M)
Plus share of Beans' H1 profit not given
Carrying value $1.0M (before any profit share)
Classification decision matters

At 25% this is the equity method, so the dividend reduces the investment. Had the stake been < 20% (a Financial Asset), the same dividend would instead be income in the P&L and the holding would be remeasured to fair value through profit or loss. Know which regime you're in before you book the dividend.


Exercise 8 — Second Tranche: Crossing to Control (75%)

1 Jul 2025: Harvest buys 1,000,000 more shares from the founder for $5M; Beans price that day = $4.50. Now owns 1,500,000 ÷ 2,000,000 = 75% → control. Beans' 30 Jun 2025 balance sheet: Assets BV 2,000 / FV 5,000; Liabilities BV 1,000 / FV 1,000 ($000s). Reflect in Harvest's FS at 31 Dec 2025.

Obtaining control triggers the ==Acquisition Method== (IFRS 3). Three things happen at once:

1 — Remeasure the previously held 25% to fair value. Prior 500,000 shares × $4.50 = $2,250 ($000s). Carrying value was ~$1,000 (Ex. 7) → remeasurement gain to P&L ≈ $1,250.

2 — Compute goodwill (full-goodwill basis):

($000s) Amount
Consideration for new 50% 5,000
+ Fair value of previously held 25% 2,250
+ Fair value of NCI (25% × 2,000,000 × $4.50) 2,250
A — Total 9,500
FV of identifiable assets 5,000
− FV of liabilities (1,000)
B — Net identifiable assets at FV 4,000
Goodwill = A − B 5,500
Goodwill=9,500−4,000=$5,500k\boxed{\text{Goodwill} = 9{,}500 - 4{,}000 = \$5{,}500\text{k}}

3 — Consolidate Beans 100% from 1 Jul 2025: all assets/liabilities at fair value, goodwill $5,500, NCI $2,250 in equity, and H2-2025 income split 75% Harvest / 25% NCI.

The journal ($000s)

First, remeasure the old stake; then post the acquisition (consolidation) entry.

Date Account Dr Cr
1 Jul 2025 Investment in Beans 1,250
 Gain on Remeasurement (P&L) 1,250
Step the old 25% up from carrying 1,000 to fair value 2,250
1 Jul 2025 Identifiable Net Assets — at FV 5,000
Goodwill 5,500
 Liabilities — at FV 1,000
 Cash (new consideration) 5,000
 Investment in Beans (remeasured 25%) 2,250
 Non-Controlling Interest (25%) 2,250
Recognise Beans' net assets at FV, derecognise the old investment, raise goodwill & NCI

Check: debits 5,000 + 5,500 = 10,500 = credits 1,000 + 5,000 + 2,250 + 2,250 = 10,500. ✓

What hits Harvest's 31 Dec 2025 consolidated statements
  • Remeasurement gain ≈ $1,250 (in P&L) on the old 25% stake.
  • Goodwill $5,500 recognised (impairment-tested, not amortised).
  • NCI $2,250 in equity.
  • Beans' assets (at the $3,000 stepped-up FV) and liabilities consolidated line-by-line; the asset step-up of $3,000 would be depreciated/amortised over H2 2025 — composition not given, so it's noted rather than quantified.
The signature move of a step acquisition

When you cross from influence to control you must revalue your old stake to fair value and run the gain/loss through P&L, as if you sold and rebought it. The acquisition-date fair value of that old interest then becomes part of the consideration used to compute goodwill.


Part E — Revenue Recognition

Theory: Session 8 - Revenue Recognition (the five-step ASC 606 / IFRS 15 model). Each answer states whether, when, and how much.

Exercise 9 — Subscription With a History of Concessions

$10,000 subscription, but the company habitually lets clients slide or grants 50% discounts mid-year.

Answer

Yes, but not at $10,000. Your customary practice creates an implied price concession → the $10,000 is variable consideration (Step 3). The transaction price is the amount you expect to be entitled to, so estimate it (expected value / most-likely amount) and apply the constraint. If you typically end up at ~50%, recognise ≈ $5,000, over the subscription period as the service is delivered. Recognising the full $10,000 would over-state revenue and reverse later.

Exercise 10 — Verbal Promise of a Free Future Module

Standard 1-yr SaaS; nothing in writing about updates, but sales verbally promised a free Q3 reporting module.

Answer

A contract includes implied promises arising from statements that create a valid customer expectation. The verbal promise is therefore a second performance obligation (Step 2). Allocate the price across the subscription and the module by their standalone selling prices (Step 4); recognise the subscription ratably over the year, and defer the module's slice until control of it transfers in Q3.

Exercise 11 — Strategic Account With Habitual "Loyalty Credits"

$100,000 fixed enterprise contract, but management historically grants ~20% concessions mid-year to such accounts.

Answer

Same mechanism as Ex. 9: the habitual concession is variable consideration / implied price concession. Expected entitlement ≈ $80,000 ($100k − 20%). Recognise revenue at the constrained ~$80,000, over time as performance occurs; exclude the $20,000 you expect to concede.

Exercise 12 — Goods Plus a Deep-Discount Voucher

Sells raw materials for $100,000 plus a voucher for 40% off next quarter's purchases (deeper than normal).

Answer

Because 40% exceeds the customer's usual discount, the voucher confers a ==material right== → a separate performance obligation (Step 2). Allocate part of the $100,000 to the voucher by its SSP (estimated discount value × redemption probability) and defer that portion. Recognise the materials revenue (net of the voucher allocation) at the point of transfer; recognise the voucher's revenue when it is redeemed or expires.

Exercise 13 — Perpetual Licence Bundled With Mandatory Hosting

Perpetual on-prem licence downloaded to the client's servers, bundled with 12 months of mandatory cloud hosting + support.

Answer

Test whether the licence is distinct. An on-prem perpetual licence the customer downloads and can use is normally distinct → recognise the licence at a point in time (when control/the download transfers) and the hosting + support over the 12 months, allocating the price by SSP. However, if the software cannot function without the mandatory hosting (highly integrated), the two are a single combined performance obligation recognised over time across the 12 months. The pivotal judgment is functional dependence.

The thread running through Ex. 9–13

Three patterns recur: (1) implied price concessions make the stated price variable (9, 11); (2) implied or bundled promises create extra performance obligations to be allocated and deferred (10, 12, 13); (3) recognition always follows transfer of control, point-in-time vs over-time (13). Cash and the headline contract price rarely equal recognised revenue.


Summary — What Each Exercise Tests

# Topic Key takeaway
1 Depreciation & disposal Early disposal → loss = NBV − proceeds
2 Accrued expense Estimate & accrue the cost in the period used
3 Accrued income Income earned but not yet received = receivable asset
4 Debt, equity & 3-statement build Profit ≠ cash; principal repayment bypasses the P&L
5 SAFE + priced round Take the lower SAFE conversion price (cap vs discount)
6 Option valuation ▲ vol/time/price; ▼ strike/dividends; vesting paces expense
7 25% stake Equity method — dividend reduces the investment
8 Step to control Remeasure old stake to FV (gain to P&L), then goodwill
9–13 Revenue recognition Variable consideration, implied obligations, control transfer